Ap Bio Unit 5 Practice Test

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Nov 15, 2025 · 15 min read

Ap Bio Unit 5 Practice Test
Ap Bio Unit 5 Practice Test

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    Ace Your AP Biology Unit 5 Exam: Practice Makes Perfect

    Preparing for the AP Biology Unit 5 exam, focusing on heredity, can feel daunting. Mastering the concepts of Mendelian genetics, chromosomal inheritance, and the intricacies of DNA replication and gene expression requires more than just memorizing facts. It demands a deep understanding of the underlying principles and the ability to apply them to solve complex problems. This comprehensive guide provides a thorough review of the key topics covered in Unit 5 and offers a robust practice test to help you solidify your knowledge and boost your confidence.

    Unraveling the Core Concepts of Heredity

    Before diving into practice questions, let's recap the fundamental concepts covered in AP Biology Unit 5:

    • Mendelian Genetics: This foundational area explores the principles of inheritance as discovered by Gregor Mendel. Key topics include:
      • Laws of Segregation and Independent Assortment: Understanding how alleles separate during gamete formation and how different genes independently assort during inheritance.
      • Monohybrid and Dihybrid Crosses: Solving problems involving single and two-trait inheritance patterns.
      • Punnett Squares: Utilizing Punnett squares to predict the genotypes and phenotypes of offspring.
      • Testcross: Determining the genotype of an unknown individual by crossing it with a homozygous recessive individual.
      • Probability Rules: Applying the rules of probability (addition and multiplication) to predict genetic outcomes.
    • Chromosomal Inheritance: This section delves into the role of chromosomes in heredity, including:
      • Sex-linked Traits: Understanding how genes located on sex chromosomes (X and Y) are inherited differently in males and females.
      • Linked Genes: Recognizing that genes located close together on the same chromosome tend to be inherited together.
      • Chromosomal Abnormalities: Identifying and understanding the causes and consequences of aneuploidy (abnormal chromosome number) and chromosomal rearrangements (deletions, duplications, inversions, and translocations).
      • Gene Mapping: Using recombination frequencies to determine the relative distances between genes on a chromosome.
    • DNA Structure and Replication: This area focuses on the molecular basis of heredity, including:
      • DNA Structure: Understanding the structure of DNA as a double helix composed of nucleotides (adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine) and the rules of complementary base pairing (A with T, and G with C).
      • DNA Replication: Describing the process of DNA replication, including the roles of enzymes like DNA polymerase, helicase, and ligase.
      • Telomeres: Understanding the function of telomeres in protecting the ends of chromosomes during replication.
    • Gene Expression: This section explores the process by which genetic information is used to synthesize proteins, including:
      • Transcription: Describing the process of transcription, where RNA polymerase synthesizes an mRNA molecule using DNA as a template.
      • RNA Processing: Understanding the modifications that mRNA undergoes after transcription, including capping, splicing, and polyadenylation.
      • Translation: Describing the process of translation, where ribosomes use mRNA as a template to synthesize a polypeptide chain.
      • Mutations: Identifying different types of mutations (point mutations, frameshift mutations) and their potential effects on protein function.
    • Regulation of Gene Expression: This area explores the mechanisms that control which genes are expressed in a cell at a given time, including:
      • Prokaryotic Gene Regulation: Understanding the lac operon and trp operon as examples of how gene expression is regulated in bacteria.
      • Eukaryotic Gene Regulation: Describing the various levels of gene regulation in eukaryotes, including chromatin modification, transcription factors, and RNA processing.
      • Non-coding RNAs: Understanding the roles of microRNAs and other non-coding RNAs in regulating gene expression.
    • Biotechnology: This section covers the applications of molecular biology techniques, including:
      • DNA Sequencing: Understanding the principles of DNA sequencing and its applications in genomics.
      • Restriction Enzymes: Describing how restriction enzymes are used to cut DNA at specific sequences.
      • Gel Electrophoresis: Understanding how gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments by size.
      • PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Describing the process of PCR and its applications in amplifying DNA sequences.
      • Genetic Engineering: Understanding the principles of genetic engineering and its applications in medicine and agriculture.

    AP Biology Unit 5 Practice Test

    Now, let's put your knowledge to the test! This practice test consists of multiple-choice questions designed to mimic the format and difficulty level of the actual AP Biology exam. Take your time, read each question carefully, and choose the best answer. After completing the test, review the answer explanations to identify areas where you need further study.

    Instructions: Choose the best answer for each question.

    Question 1:

    In a certain species of plant, the allele for purple flowers (P) is dominant over the allele for white flowers (p). If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous recessive plant, what is the probability that the offspring will have white flowers?

    (A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 75% (E) 100%

    Question 2:

    A man with type A blood marries a woman with type B blood. Their first child has type O blood. What are the genotypes of the parents?

    (A) Man: IAIA, Woman: IBIB (B) Man: IAIO, Woman: IBIO (C) Man: IAIB, Woman: IAIB (D) Man: IAIA, Woman: IBIO (E) Man: IAIO, Woman: IBIB

    Question 3:

    In fruit flies, the gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome. Red eyes (R) are dominant to white eyes (r). If a white-eyed female fruit fly is crossed with a red-eyed male fruit fly, what percentage of the male offspring will have white eyes?

    (A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 50% (D) 75% (E) 100%

    Question 4:

    Which of the following processes is directly involved in the synthesis of mRNA?

    (A) Replication (B) Translation (C) Transcription (D) Mutation (E) Transformation

    Question 5:

    Which of the following enzymes is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication?

    (A) DNA polymerase (B) Ligase (C) Helicase (D) Primase (E) Topoisomerase

    Question 6:

    A mutation that results in the premature termination of translation is called a:

    (A) Silent mutation (B) Missense mutation (C) Nonsense mutation (D) Frameshift mutation (E) Point mutation

    Question 7:

    The lac operon in E. coli is an example of:

    (A) Positive gene regulation (B) Negative gene regulation (C) Inducible gene regulation (D) Repressible gene regulation (E) Both B and C

    Question 8:

    Which of the following is NOT a modification that occurs to mRNA during processing in eukaryotes?

    (A) Addition of a 5' cap (B) Addition of a poly-A tail (C) Splicing (D) Methylation (E) Removal of introns

    Question 9:

    Which of the following techniques is used to separate DNA fragments by size?

    (A) PCR (B) DNA sequencing (C) Gel electrophoresis (D) Restriction digestion (E) Transformation

    Question 10:

    A piece of DNA has the following sequence: 5'-ATGCGA-3'. What is the sequence of the complementary strand?

    (A) 5'-TACGCT-3' (B) 5'-TCGCAT-3' (C) 5'-ATGCGA-3' (D) 5'-UACGCU-3' (E) 5'-GCATGC-3'

    Question 11:

    What is the role of tRNA in translation?

    (A) To carry DNA information from the nucleus to the ribosome. (B) To carry amino acids to the ribosome. (C) To catalyze the formation of peptide bonds. (D) To provide the energy for translation. (E) To initiate transcription.

    Question 12:

    A cell with a diploid number of 46 chromosomes undergoes meiosis. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell have at the end of meiosis II?

    (A) 23 (B) 46 (C) 92 (D) 12 (E) 69

    Question 13:

    Which of the following is an example of a post-translational modification?

    (A) DNA replication (B) RNA splicing (C) Protein folding (D) Glycosylation (E) Transcription

    Question 14:

    What is the purpose of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?

    (A) To cut DNA at specific sequences. (B) To separate DNA fragments by size. (C) To amplify a specific DNA sequence. (D) To determine the sequence of a DNA fragment. (E) To introduce foreign DNA into a cell.

    Question 15:

    Which of the following best describes the role of histone acetylation in gene expression?

    (A) It typically inhibits transcription by condensing chromatin. (B) It typically promotes transcription by loosening chromatin structure. (C) It leads to DNA methylation and gene silencing. (D) It is involved in RNA splicing. (E) It is a form of post-translational modification of proteins.

    Question 16:

    What is the significance of the enzyme telomerase?

    (A) It is responsible for DNA replication. (B) It prevents the shortening of DNA during replication. (C) It is involved in DNA repair. (D) It is responsible for RNA splicing. (E) It degrades damaged DNA.

    Question 17:

    What is the difference between an intron and an exon?

    (A) Introns are coding sequences, while exons are non-coding sequences. (B) Exons are coding sequences, while introns are non-coding sequences. (C) Introns are found in prokaryotes, while exons are found in eukaryotes. (D) Exons are found in prokaryotes, while introns are found in eukaryotes. (E) Introns are involved in replication, while exons are involved in translation.

    Question 18:

    What is the role of a promoter in gene expression?

    (A) It is the site where the ribosome binds to mRNA. (B) It is the site where RNA polymerase binds to DNA to initiate transcription. (C) It is a sequence that signals the end of translation. (D) It is a regulatory protein that binds to DNA. (E) It is a non-coding RNA that regulates gene expression.

    Question 19:

    What is the definition of a "frameshift mutation"?

    (A) A mutation that changes a single nucleotide in a DNA sequence. (B) A mutation that results in a change in the amino acid sequence of a protein. (C) A mutation that results in the insertion or deletion of nucleotides, altering the reading frame. (D) A mutation that has no effect on the amino acid sequence of a protein. (E) A mutation that results in the premature termination of translation.

    Question 20:

    Which of the following is a potential application of gene therapy?

    (A) Producing recombinant proteins in bacteria. (B) Creating transgenic organisms. (C) Correcting genetic defects in humans. (D) Amplifying DNA sequences using PCR. (E) Separating DNA fragments by size.

    Answer Key and Explanations

    Now, let's review the answers to the practice test and understand the reasoning behind each correct answer. This section will help you identify your strengths and weaknesses and provide valuable insights into the concepts covered in Unit 5.

    1. Answer: (C) 50%

      Explanation: A heterozygous plant (Pp) crossed with a homozygous recessive plant (pp) will produce offspring with the following genotypes: 50% Pp (purple flowers) and 50% pp (white flowers). Use a Punnett square to visualize the cross.

    2. Answer: (B) Man: IAIO, Woman: IBIO

      Explanation: For their child to have type O blood (IOIO), both parents must carry the IO allele. A person with type A blood can have the genotype IAIA or IAIO, and a person with type B blood can have the genotype IBIB or IBIO. Therefore, the parents must be IAIO and IBIO.

    3. Answer: (E) 100%

      Explanation: Since the gene for eye color is located on the X chromosome, the white-eyed female has the genotype XrXr. The red-eyed male has the genotype XRY. All male offspring will inherit the X chromosome from their mother (Xr) and the Y chromosome from their father, resulting in the genotype XrY, which corresponds to white eyes.

    4. Answer: (C) Transcription

      Explanation: Transcription is the process of synthesizing mRNA from a DNA template. Replication is the process of copying DNA. Translation is the process of synthesizing proteins from mRNA. Mutation is a change in the DNA sequence. Transformation is the process of introducing foreign DNA into a cell.

    5. Answer: (C) Helicase

      Explanation: Helicase is the enzyme that unwinds the DNA double helix by breaking the hydrogen bonds between the base pairs. DNA polymerase is responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands. Ligase joins DNA fragments together. Primase synthesizes RNA primers. Topoisomerase relieves the tension caused by unwinding the DNA.

    6. Answer: (C) Nonsense mutation

      Explanation: A nonsense mutation is a point mutation that results in a stop codon, leading to the premature termination of translation. A silent mutation does not change the amino acid sequence. A missense mutation changes the amino acid sequence. A frameshift mutation results from the insertion or deletion of nucleotides.

    7. Answer: (E) Both B and C

      Explanation: The lac operon is an example of negative gene regulation because the presence of a repressor protein prevents transcription when lactose is absent. It is also an example of inducible gene regulation because the presence of lactose induces transcription by inactivating the repressor protein.

    8. Answer: (D) Methylation

      Explanation: Methylation is a modification that occurs to DNA, not mRNA. The other options (addition of a 5' cap, addition of a poly-A tail, splicing, and removal of introns) are all modifications that occur to mRNA during processing in eukaryotes.

    9. Answer: (C) Gel electrophoresis

      Explanation: Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate DNA fragments by size. PCR is used to amplify DNA sequences. DNA sequencing is used to determine the sequence of DNA. Restriction digestion is used to cut DNA at specific sequences. Transformation is the process of introducing foreign DNA into a cell.

    10. Answer: (B) 5'-TCGCAT-3'

      Explanation: The complementary strand of DNA is synthesized using the rules of base pairing: adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T), and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C). Also, the strands run antiparallel to each other.

    11. Answer: (B) To carry amino acids to the ribosome.

      Explanation: tRNA (transfer RNA) molecules are responsible for bringing the correct amino acids to the ribosome during translation. Each tRNA molecule has an anticodon that recognizes a specific codon on the mRNA.

    12. Answer: (A) 23

      Explanation: Meiosis is a process of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half. After meiosis I, each daughter cell has 23 chromosomes (n). Meiosis II is similar to mitosis and does not change the chromosome number.

    13. Answer: (D) Glycosylation

      Explanation: Glycosylation is the addition of carbohydrates to a protein. It is a post-translational modification because it occurs after the protein has been synthesized. Protein folding is also a post-translational process but is not considered a modification.

    14. Answer: (C) To amplify a specific DNA sequence.

      Explanation: PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a technique used to amplify a specific DNA sequence, creating millions of copies from a small amount of starting material.

    15. Answer: (B) It typically promotes transcription by loosening chromatin structure.

      Explanation: Histone acetylation typically promotes transcription by neutralizing the positive charge on histones, which loosens the interaction between histones and DNA, making the DNA more accessible to transcription factors.

    16. Answer: (B) It prevents the shortening of DNA during replication.

      Explanation: Telomerase is an enzyme that adds repetitive DNA sequences to the ends of chromosomes (telomeres), preventing the shortening of DNA during replication.

    17. Answer: (B) Exons are coding sequences, while introns are non-coding sequences.

      Explanation: Exons are the regions of a gene that are transcribed and translated into protein. Introns are non-coding sequences that are transcribed but removed from the mRNA during splicing.

    18. Answer: (B) It is the site where RNA polymerase binds to DNA to initiate transcription.

      Explanation: The promoter is a DNA sequence that RNA polymerase recognizes and binds to in order to initiate transcription.

    19. Answer: (C) A mutation that results in the insertion or deletion of nucleotides, altering the reading frame.

      Explanation: A frameshift mutation is caused by the insertion or deletion of nucleotides in a DNA sequence, which shifts the reading frame and alters the amino acid sequence of the protein.

    20. Answer: (C) Correcting genetic defects in humans.

      Explanation: Gene therapy involves introducing genes into cells to treat or prevent disease. A major goal of gene therapy is to correct genetic defects in humans.

    Strategies for Success on the AP Biology Exam

    Beyond mastering the content, strategic test-taking can significantly improve your performance on the AP Biology exam. Here are some tips to keep in mind:

    • Read Questions Carefully: Avoid careless errors by reading each question thoroughly before selecting an answer. Pay attention to keywords like "NOT," "EXCEPT," and "ALWAYS."
    • Eliminate Incorrect Answers: Use the process of elimination to narrow down your choices. Even if you're unsure of the correct answer, you can often eliminate one or two options that are clearly wrong.
    • Manage Your Time Wisely: The AP Biology exam is timed, so it's essential to pace yourself. Don't spend too much time on any one question. If you're stuck, move on and come back to it later.
    • Understand the Format: Familiarize yourself with the format of the AP Biology exam, including the types of questions asked and the scoring rubric. This will help you feel more confident and prepared on test day.
    • Practice Regularly: The more you practice, the better you'll become at applying your knowledge and solving problems. Take advantage of practice tests, review questions, and other resources to hone your skills.
    • Focus on Understanding, Not Memorization: While memorization is important, it's even more crucial to understand the underlying concepts. This will allow you to apply your knowledge to novel situations and solve complex problems.
    • Stay Calm and Confident: Test anxiety can negatively impact your performance. Take deep breaths, stay calm, and trust in your preparation.

    Additional Resources for AP Biology Unit 5

    To further enhance your understanding of AP Biology Unit 5, consider utilizing the following resources:

    • AP Biology Textbook: Your textbook is a comprehensive source of information on all the topics covered in the course.
    • AP Biology Review Books: Review books provide concise summaries of key concepts and practice questions.
    • Online Resources: Numerous websites and online platforms offer AP Biology resources, including practice tests, videos, and study guides. Some popular options include Khan Academy, College Board, and AP Biology communities.
    • Your Teacher: Your AP Biology teacher is an invaluable resource. Don't hesitate to ask questions, seek clarification, and attend review sessions.
    • Study Groups: Collaborating with classmates can be a great way to learn and review material.

    By combining a solid understanding of the core concepts with strategic test-taking skills and consistent practice, you can confidently approach the AP Biology Unit 5 exam and achieve your desired score. Good luck!

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